Networking Essentials (Version 2.0) Final Exam Answers Full Updated 2022

 

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Answers

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1. What is the difference between the terms bandwidth and throughput?

• Bandwidth measures data transfer of web applications and throughput measures data transfer of video applications.
• Bandwidth is measured with Mb/s and throughput is measured in Kbps.
• Bandwidth is the capacity of data transfer in a network and throughput is the actual data transfer rate.
• Bandwidth represents the data transfer rate in a local network and throughput represents the data transfer rate over the Internet.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q2

• B, E, G, H
• E, F, H, I, J
• D, E, F, H, I, J
• A, C, D
• C, D, G, H, I, J

3. Which scenario describes a peer-to-peer network?

• A user visits a webpage on the company web site.
• Users print documents from a network printer that has a built-in NIC.
• Users access shared files from a file server.
• A user has shared a printer attached to the workstation.

Explanation: In a peer-to-peer network there is no centralized or dedicated server. A user computer can be a client to request service from another user computer and a server to share a network resource (such as a printer) to other users.

4. When a computer assembles a frame to be sent over the network, what is the maximum size of an Ethernet frame?

• 64 bytes
• 1518 bytes
• 128 bytes
• 1024 bytes

Explanation: Ethernet standards define a frame size with a minimum of 64 bytes and a maximum of 1518 bytes including fields of destination MAC address, source MAC, Length/Type, data payload, and FCS

5. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows a small switched network and the contents of the MAC address table of the switch. PC1 has sent a frame addressed to PC3. What will the switch do with the frame?

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q5

• The switch will forward the frame only to ports 1 and 3.
• The switch will forward the frame only to port 2.
• The switch will forward the frame to all ports except port 4.
• The switch will discard the frame.
• The switch will forward the frame to all ports.

Explanation: The MAC address of PC3 is not present in the MAC table of the switch. Because the switch does not know where to send the frame that is addressed to PC3, it will forward the frame to all the switch ports, except for port 4, which is the incoming port.

6. What is the function of ARP?

• resolves domain names to IP addresses
• sends error and operational information messages to hosts
• provides automatic IP address assignments to hosts
• maps IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses

Explanation: ARP, or Address Resolution Protocol, is used by hosts to resolve a destination MAC address from a given destination IP address.

7. Users are complaining that they are unable to browse certain websites on the Internet. An administrator can successfully ping a web server via its IP address, but cannot browse to the domain name of the website. Which troubleshooting tool would be most useful in determining where the problem is?

• nslookup
• netstat
• ipconfig
• tracert

Explanation: The nslookup command can be used to look up information about a particular DNS name in the DNS server. The information includes the IP address of the DNS server being used as well as the IP address associated with the specified DNS name. This command can help verify the DNS that is used and if the domain name to IP address resolution works.

8. Match the command to the function.

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q8

9. A medium-sized company uses APs, WLCs, and laptops for employee workstations. An employee reports the inability to connect to the Internet. A technician verifies that other workstations can successfully connect to the Internet. What are two possible reasons for the problem? (Choose two.)

• The AP does not have power.
• The wireless client is not configured for DHCP.
• A bad cable exists between the client and the WLC.
• A default gateway is improperly configured on the AP.
• The workstation is out of range.

10. Match the type of attack with the description. (Not all options are used.)

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q10

11. Which three attacks exploit vulnerabilities in software? (Choose three.)

• phishing
• Trojan horses
• worms
• viruses
• vishing
• pretexting

12. A file is downloaded from the Internet. After the user opens the downloaded file, the hard drive crashes and all information on the computer is lost. What type of attack occurred?

• worm
• denial of service
• Trojan horse
• virus

Explanation: Viruses are malicious programs that are spread by modifying other programs and files and can cause hard drives to crash and files to be lost.

13. What are two ways to protect a computer from malware? (Choose two.)

• Keep software up to date.
• Use antivirus software.
• Empty the browser cache.
• Defragment the hard disk.
• Delete unused software.

Explanation: At a minimum, a computer should use antivirus software and have all software up to date to defend against malware.

14. Which memory location on a Cisco router or switch will lose all content when the device is restarted?

• ROM
• NVRAM
• flash
• RAM

Explanation: RAM is volatile memory and will lose all contents if the router or switch is restarted or shutdown.

15. Which memory location on a Cisco router or switch stores the startup configuration file?

• ROM
• RAM
• NVRAM
• flash

Explanation: The startup configuration file of a Cisco router or switch is stored in NVRAM, which is nonvolatile memory.

16. Which network device makes forwarding decisions based on the destination MAC address that is contained in the frame?

• switch
• hub
• router
• repeater

Explanation: Switches are the central connection point for a LAN and they maintain a MAC address table. The MAC address table has a port number associated with a MAC address for each particular device. The switch inspects a frame to look at the destination MAC address. The switch then looks in its MAC address table and if that MAC address is found, the switch forwards the data to the port that is associated with that particular MAC address.

17. A user is looking for a wireless headphone for listening to songs stored on a smartphone. What wireless technology would the headphone use?

• infrared
• Wi-Fi
• Bluetooth
• 3G/4G

Explanation: Bluetooth is a wireless technology for data exchange over a short distance. It is suitable for connecting devices with simple tasks, such as headsets, keyboards, mice, and printers. Wi-Fi is suitable for variety of applications with high speed wireless connectivity required or preferred. Infrared requires a direct line of sight between the transmitter and the receiver. 3G/4G are cellular network technologies to manage voice calls and data transmission between clients and service providers.

18. Which three features represent benefits of virtualization? (Choose three.)

• less device monitoring
• improved disaster recovery
• less employee technical training
• less equipment
• less power consumption
• fewer security requirements

19. A company has a few employees that are designers. The designers do not have the CAD application loaded on their local computer. Instead, the designers use a CAD application hosted by the application developer. Which type of virtualization is the company using?

• DaaS
• PaaS
• SaaS
• IaaS

Explanation: Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud computing type that provides access to one or more applications through a server. This server is not owned or managed by the company using the application.

20. What is the purpose of the startup configuration file on a Cisco router?

• to facilitate the basic operation of the hardware components of a device
• to contain the configuration commands that the router IOS is currently using
• to contain the commands that are used to initially configure a router on startup
• to provide a limited backup version of the IOS, in case the router cannot load the full featured IOS

Explanation: The startup configuration file is stored in NVRAM and contains the commands needed to initially configure a router. It also creates the running configuration file that is stored in in RAM.

21. Which two steps are required before SSH can be enabled on a Cisco router? (Choose two.)

• Give the router a host name and domain name.
• Create a banner that will be displayed to users when they connect.
• Set up an authentication server to handle incoming connection requests.
• Enable SSH on the physical interfaces where the incoming connection requests will be received.
• Generate a set of secret keys to be used for encryption and decryption.

Explanation: There are four steps to configure SSH on a Cisco router. First, set the host name and domain name. Second, generate a set of RSA keys to be used for encrypting and decrypting the traffic. Third, create the user IDs and passwords of the users who will be connecting. Lastly, enable SSH on the vty lines on the router. SSH does not need to be set up on any physical interfaces, nor does an external authentication server need to be used. While it is a good idea to configure a banner to display legal information for connecting users, it is not required to enable SSH.​

22. The global configuration command ip default-gateway 172.16.100.1 is applied to a switch. What is the effect of this command?

• The switch is limited to sending and receiving frames to and from the gateway 172.16.100.1.
• The switch can be remotely managed from a host on another network.
• The switch can communicate with other hosts on the 172.16.100.0 network.
• The switch will have a management interface with the address 172.16.100.1.

Explanation: A default gateway address is typically configured on all devices to allow them to communicate beyond just their local network.In a switch this is achieved using the command ip default-gateway <ip address>.

23. Match the client operation to the network service.

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q23

24. What action does a DNS server take if it does not have an entry for a requested URL?

• The server assigns a temporary IP address to the name and sends this IP address to the client.
• The server returns a “page not found” response to the client.
• The server checks with another DNS server to see if it has an entry.
• The server drops the request.

25. A network security administrator is writing documentation on the firewall requirements for allowing Telnet access to the remote server. Which two pieces of information should be included? (Choose two.)

• port 23
• UDP
• port 22
• TCP
• port 20

26. A new employee is attempting to configure a cell phone to connect to the email server of the company. What is the source port number when sending an email from a mobile device?

• The source port number is 143.
• The source port number is dynamically generated.
• The source port number is 25.
• The source port number is 110.

27. Which function does NAT perform in a wireless router?

• NAT takes an internal source IP address and translates it to a global IP address.
• NAT takes a destination IP address and translates it to a global IP address.
• NAT takes a local IP address and translates it to an internal source IP address.
• NAT takes a source IP address and translates it to a default gateway address.

28. What type of address is automatically assigned to an interface when IPv6 is enabled on that interface?

• link-local
• unique local
• global unicast
• loopback

Explanation: When IPv6 is enabled on any interface, that interface will automatically generate an IPv6 link-local address.

29. A user is setting up a home wireless network. A global address is to be used in NAT translations for traffic flowing through the wireless router. How is this global address assigned?

• The default gateway IP address of the LAN device is used as the global address for NAT translations through the wireless router.
• The network administrator will choose an available IP address from the LAN and configure the global addressing of the wireless router.
• The wireless router will act as a DHCP client in order to receive global addressing from the ISP.
• The host devices will select an unused IP address on the LAN for performing NAT through the wireless router.

30. A network administrator investigates a user problem. The user can reach hosts on the same network, but is unable to communicate to remote networks.The network administrator tries to ping the gateway address configured on the host device and is unsuccessful. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

• TCP/IP is not installed on the host device.
• The IP address of the user is incorrectly configured.
• The default gateway address is incorrect.
• The address of the remote device is incorrect.

31. Which switch command would a network administrator use to determine if there are encapsulation or media errors on an interface?

• show arp
• show ip interface
• show line
• show interfaces

32. Match the definitions to their respective CLI hot keys and shortcuts. (Not all options are used.)

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q32

The shortcuts with their functions are as follows:
– Tab – Completes the remainder of a partially typed command or keyword
– Space bar – displays the next screen
– ? – provides context-sensitive help
– Up Arrow – Allows user to scroll backward through former commands
– Ctrl-C – cancels any command currently being entered and returns directly to privileged EXEC mode
– Ctrl-Shift-6 – Allows the user to interrupt an IOS process such as ping or traceroute

33. Match the description with the associated IOS mode. (Not all options are used.)

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q33

34. What two default wireless router settings can affect network security? (Choose two.)

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q34

• The SSID is broadcast.
• MAC address filtering is enabled.
• WEP encryption is enabled.
• The wireless channel is automatically selected.
• A well-known administrator password is set.

Explanation: Default settings on wireless routers often include broadcasting the SSID and using a well-known administrative password. Both of these pose a security risk to wireless networks. WEP encryption and MAC address filtering are not set by default. The automatic selection of the wireless channel poses no security risks.

35. Which security function is provided by a firewall?

• allows or blocks traffic based on IP address, port number, or application
• passively monitors network traffic and logs intrusion attacks for security analysis
• passively monitors network traffic and automatically blocks intrusion attacks
• aggregates and correlates threat events, contextual information, and network device performance data

Explanation: A firewall monitors incoming and outgoing network traffic and allows or blocks traffic based on filtering and stateful inspection of packets.

36. Which wireless security technology is difficult to crack and provides encryption of network traffic?

• WPA2
• MAC address filtering
• WEP
• EAP

37. When a wireless router is being configured for the first time, what type of wired connection is used?

• modem cable
• console cable
• telephone cable
• Ethernet patch cable

Explanation: A straight-through Ethernet cable, or patch cable, is commonly used to connect to a wireless router for initial configuration.

38. Which type of network is covered by the IEEE 802.11 standards?

• Internet
• Wi-Fi
• Ethernet
• WAN

39. Which advanced wireless security measure allows a network administrator to keep sensitive data secure as it travels over the air in a wireless network?

• authentication
• encryption
• MAC address filtering
• traffic filtering

Explanation: Encryption is used to secure plaintext data that would be viewable traveling over a wireless network.

40. Match the TCP/IP model layer to the function.

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q40

41. Which three acronyms/initialisms represent standards organizations? (Choose three.)

• TCP/IP
• MAC
• OSI
• IETF
• IEEE
• IANA

Explanation: TCP/IP is a protocol stack that contains a lot of other protocols such as HTTP, FTP, and DNS. The TCP/IP protocol stack is required to be used when communicating on the Internet. A MAC address is an address that is burned into an Ethernet network card. OSI is the 7 layer model that is used to explain how networking works.

42. Which statement is correct about network protocols?

• They are only required for exchange of messages between devices on remote networks.
• They all function in the network access layer of TCP/IP.
• Network protocols define the type of hardware that is used and how it is mounted in racks.
• They define how messages are exchanged between the source and the destination.

Explanation: Network protocols are implemented in hardware, or software, or both. They interact with each other within different layers of a protocol stack. Protocols have nothing to do with the installation of the network equipment. Network protocols are required to exchange information between source and destination devices in both local and remote networks.

43. A company uses DHCP servers to dynamically assign IPv4 addresses to employee workstations. The address lease duration is set as 5 days. An employee returns to the office after an absence of one week. When the employee boots the workstation, it sends a message to obtain an IP address. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 destination addresses will the message contain?

• MAC address of the DHCP server and 255.255.255.255
• both MAC and IPv4 addresses of the DHCP server
• FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF and IPv4 address of the DHCP server
• FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF and 255.255.255.255

Explanation: When the lease of a dynamically assigned IPv4 address has expired, a workstation will send a DHCPDISCOVER message to start the process of obtaining a valid IP address. Because the workstation does not know the addresses of DHCP servers, it sends the message via broadcast, with destination addresses of FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF and 255.255.255.255.

44. When designing an IP address scheme, what is a benefit of using DHCP to assign host addresses?

• Devices on the Internet can easily locate the hosts and send data to them.
• Hosts are permanently assigned an address by the DHCP server so that they are easier to manage
• A gateway address is not required for hosts on one subnet to communicate with hosts on another subnet.
• Changing the subnetting scheme does not require manually reassigning individual host addresses.

45. A network administrator needs to monitor network traffic to and from servers in a data center. Which features of an IP addressing scheme should be applied to these devices?

• dynamic addresses to reduce the probability of duplicate addresses
• predictable static IP addresses for easier identification
• addresses from different subnets for redundancy
• random static addresses to improve security

Explanation: When monitoring servers, a network administrator needs to be able to quickly identify them. Using a predictable static addressing scheme for these devices makes them easier to identify. Server security, redundancy, and duplication of addresses are not features of an IP addressing scheme.

46. What does the IP address 172.17.4.250/24 represent?

• multicast address
• host address
• broadcast address
• network address

Explanation: The /24 shows that the network address is 172.17.4.0. The broadcast address for this network would be 172.17.4.255. Useable host addresses for this network are 172.17.4.1 through 172.17.4.254.

47. What is the decimal equivalent to binary 11110000?

• 192
• 248
• 224
• 240

48. A message is sent to all hosts on a remote network. Which type of message is it?

• unicast
• limited broadcast
• directed broadcast
• multicast

Explanation: A directed broadcast is a message sent to all hosts on a specific network. It is useful for sending a broadcast to all hosts on a nonlocal network. A multicast message is a message sent to a selected group of hosts that are part of a subscribing multicast group. A limited broadcast is used for a communication that is limited to the hosts on the local network. A unicast message is a message sent from one host to another.

49. A user is attempting to access http://www.cisco.com/ without success. Which two configuration values must be set on the host to allow this access? (Choose two.)

• source MAC address
• DNS server
• default gateway
• source port number
• HTTP server

50. Which three configuration components are required to allow a host to communicate with other hosts on remote networks? (Choose three.)

• IP address
• domain name
• default gateway
• DNS server
• subnet mask
• DHCP server address

Explanation: An IP address, a subnet mask, and a default gateway are required on a host that must communicate with another host in a remote network. DNS server information is needed if mapping a domain name to an associated IP address. DHCP server information is dynamically learned and is not a required configuration for remote network reachability.

51. Which two methods are used to directly connect mobile devices such as tablets and smartphones to a data network? (Choose two.)

• WiMax
• Wi-Fi
• Bluetooth
• cellular communications
• wired Ethernet

52. Why does HTTP use TCP as the transport layer protocol?

• because HTTP requires reliable delivery
• to ensure the fastest possible download speed
• because HTTP is a best-effort protocol
• because transmission errors can be tolerated easily

Explanation: When a host requests a web page, transmission reliability and completeness must be guaranteed. Therefore, HTTP uses TCP as its transport layer protocol.

53. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 needs to resolve the host name of the web server into an IP address by using DNS. What destination IP address and destination port number will PC1 assign to the DNS query packet?​

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q53

• 192.168.20.2 port 80
• 192.168.10.1 port 53
• 192.168.20.3 port 53
• 192.168.20.2 port 53
• 192.168.20.3 port 80

54. When is UDP preferred to TCP?

• when all the data must be fully received before any part of it is considered useful
• when segments must arrive in a very specific sequence to be processed successfully
• when a client sends a segment to a server
• when an application can tolerate some loss of data during transmission

55. Refer to the exhibit. Match the packets with their destination IP address to the exiting interfaces on the router. (Not all targets are used.)

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q55_1

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q55

Explanation: Packets with a destination of 172.17.6.15 are forwarded through Fa0/0. Packets with a destination of 172.17.10.5 are forwarded through Fa1/1. Packets with a destination of 172.17.12.10 are forwarded through Fa1/0. Packets with a destination of 172.17.14.8 are forwarded through Fa0/1. Because network 172.17.8.0 has no entry in the routing table, it will take the gateway of last resort, which means that packets with a destination of 172.17.8.20 are forwarded through Serial0/0/0. Because a gateway of last resort exists, no packets will be dropped.

56. When a router receives a packet, what information must be examined in order for the packet to be forwarded to a remote destination?

• source IP address
• destination IP address
• destination MAC address
• source MAC address

Explanation: When a router receives a packet, it examines the destination address of the packet and uses the routing table to search for the best path to that network.

57. A user can access a file share resource on a server located in the same office but cannot access the internet. What is the possible cause?

• The default gateway address is misconfigured on the PC.
• The switch is malfunctioning.
• The DHCP server is disconnected.
• The IPv4 address and subnet mask are misconfigured on the PC.

58. A network technician is extending the network from the main office building over several hundred meters to a new security station. The security station needs a high speed connection to support video surveillance of the main building. What type of cable is best suited to connect the security station to the rest of the main office network?

• fiber optic
• unshielded twisted pair
• shielded twisted pair
• coax

59. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)

• greater bandwidth potential
• easily terminated
• lower installation cost
• durable connections
• limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
• greater distances per cable run

Explanation: Optical fiber cable transmits data over longer distances and at higher bandwidths than any other networking media. Unlike copper wires, fiber-optic cable can transmit signals with less attenuation and is completely immune to EMI and RFI.

60. Which statement describes the ping and tracert commands?

• Tracert uses IP addresses; ping does not.
• Tracert shows each hop, while ping shows a destination reply only.
• Both ping and tracert can show results in a graphical display.
• Ping shows whether the transmission is successful; tracert does not.

Explanation: The ping utility tests end-to-end connectivity between the two hosts. However, if the message does not reach the destination, there is no way to determine where the problem is located. On the other hand, the traceroute utility ( tracert in Windows) traces the route a message takes from its source to the destination. Traceroute displays each hop along the way and the time it takes for the message to get to that network and back.

61. Which three protocols operate at the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

• ARP
• POP3
• TCP
• DHCP
• FTP
• UDP

Explanation: FTP, DHCP, and POP3 are application layer protocols. TCP and UDP are transport layer protocols. ARP is a network layer protocol.

62. Which network design solution will best extend access layer connectivity to host devices?

• implementing EtherChannel
• implementing redundancy
• implementing routing protocols
• implementing wireless connectivity

Explanation: EtherChannel allows more data to be moved at the access layer, but does not provide network expansion. Redundancy is used to provide failover solutions but does not focus on network expansion. Routing protocols are not used to provide network expansion at the access layer. Wireless connectivity provides network access to a large number of users at the access layer.

63. Which network server is malfunctioning if a user can ping the IP address of a web server but cannot ping the web server host name?

• the DHCP server
• the DNS server
• the FTP server
• the HTTP server

Explanation: If pings are successful to an IP address but not to a host name, then the problem may be that a DNS server cannot be accessed.

64. A PC is not able to connect to a wired network. Pinging the loopback address is successful, but the gateway cannot be reached. On the network switch all the interface lights are on, except for the interface connected to the PC. The LED on the network card is off. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

• The gateway needs to be fixed.
• The network cable is faulty.
• The PC has an incorrect IP address for the DNS server.
• The network switch is faulty.

Explanation: The network card is working if the loopback address can be pinged. The LED on the network card being off points towards a faulty cable or a bad connection.

65. What are two benefits of wireless networks over wired networks? (Choose two.)

• increased security
• anytime, anywhere connectivity
• immunity to interference
• speed
• mobility

66. Which technology is used to uniquely identify a WLAN network?

• MAC address table
• SSID
• WEP
• WPA

Explanation: When a wireless AP or router is being set up, an SSID is configured to uniquely identify the WLAN that is managed by the device.

67. Match the components in the notation 100Base-T to the specification. (Not all options are used.)

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q67

68. Which two OSI model layers have the same functionality as a single layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)

• transport
• physical
• network
• data link
• session

Explanation: The OSI data link and physical layers together are equivalent to the TCP/IP network access layer. The OSI transport layer is functionally equivalent to the TCP/IP transport layer, and the OSI network layer is equivalent to the TCP/IP internet layer. The OSI application, presentation, and session layers are functionally equivalent to the application layer within the TCP/IP model.

69. Which address is a valid IPv6 address that could be assigned to a host?

• 2001:db8::1111::200/80
• 2001:db8::1111::200/64​
• 2001:db8:0:1111::200/44
• 2001:db8:0:1111::200/120​

70. What does the letter C mean next to an entry in the output of the show ip route command?

• It identifies a network that is a static route.
• It identifies a network that is learned through OSPF.
• It identifies a network that is learned through EIGRP.
• It identifies a network that is directly connected to the router.

Explanation: In a routing table, the label C identifies a network that is directly connected to an interface on the device. This entry is added to the routing table when an interface is configured with an IP address and activated.

71. Which interface allows remote management of a Layer 2 switch?

• the first Ethernet port interface
• the switch virtual interface
• the console port interface
• the AUX interface

Explanation: In a Layer 2 switch, there is a switch virtual interface (SVI) that provides a means for remotely managing the device.

72. Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router? (Choose two.)

• ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.
• Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.
• RAM permanently stores the configuration file used during the boot sequence.
• ROM contains the most current and most complete version of the IOS.
• Flash contains boot system commands to identify the location of the IOS.
• NVRAM stores a backup copy of the IOS used during the boot sequence.

73. Which feature is characteristic of MAC filtering in wireless networks?

• It restricts computer access to a wireless network.
• It encrypts data that is transmitted on a wireless network.
• It allows only authorized users to detect the network.
• It is configured on the computer rather than on the router.

Explanation: MAC address filtering uses the MAC address to identify which devices are allowed to connect to the wireless network.

74. Which two statements about a Service Set Identifier (SSID) are true? (Choose two.)

• It is responsible for determining the signal strength.
• It tells a wireless device to which WLAN it belongs.
• All wireless devices on the same WLAN must have the same SSID.
• It provides strong wireless security.
• It is used to encrypt data sent across the wireless network.

75. What are three characteristics of UTP cabling? (Choose three.)

• susceptible to EMI and RFI
• commonly used for Internet connectivity by a cable TV provider
• easiest type of networking cable to install
• commonly used between buildings
• uses light to transmit data
• most commonly used networking cable

76. Which three factors should be considered when choosing the appropriate network media? (Choose three.)

• the data security and fault tolerance requirement
• the environment in which the media is installed
• the amount of data and the data transfer rate desired
• the operating systems used on network devices in the network
• the distance between hosts that the media will connect
• the speed of the CPU and amount of memory in servers

Explanation:
Several criteria should be considered when selecting network media: The cost of the media and installation
The environment in which the media is installed
The amount of data and the data transfer rate desired
The distance between hosts that the media will connect

77. What is an advantage of the peer-to-peer network model?

• high level of security
• scalability
• ease of setup
• centralized administration

78. Which three devices are considered intermediate devices in a network? (Choose three.)

• wireless access point
• network printer
• server
• switch
• workstation
• router

Explanation: Intermediate devices in a network provide network connectivity to end devices and transfer user data packets during data communications.

79. Which two devices are shared peripherals? (Choose two.)

• touch-pad with digital stylus
• printer
• scanner
• tablet
• laptop

Explanation: A shared peripheral device does not connect directly to a network. This device is attached to a host (such as a PC) and the host connects to the network to share the peripheral device.

80. Which is a characteristic of a Type 2 hypervisor?​

• does not require management console software
• has direct access to server hardware resources
• best suited for enterprise environments
• installs directly on hardware

Explanation: Type 2 hypervisors are hosted on an underlaying operating system and are best suited for consumer applications and those experimenting with virtualization. Unlike Type 1 hypervisors, Type 2 hypervisors do not require a management console and do not have direct access to hardware.​

81. A network administrator attempted to access the company website and received a “page not found” error. The next day the administrator checked the web server logs and noticed that during the same hour that the site failed to load, there was an unusually large number of requests for the website home page. All of the requests originated from the same IP address. Given this information, what might the network administrator conclude?

• The web server was turned off and was not able to service requests.
• It is normal web surfing activity.
• It is likely that someone attempted a DoS attack.
• The link to the website does not have enough capacity and needs to be increased.

82. What technique is used in social engineering attacks?

• sending junk email
• man-in-the-middle
• phishing
• buffer overflow

Explanation: A threat actor sends fraudulent email which is disguised as being from a legitimate, trusted source to trick the recipient into installing malware on their device, or to share personal or financial information.

83. Which three IP addresses are considered private addresses? (Choose three.)

• 192.168.5.29
• 172.17.254.4
• 128.37.255.6
• 198.168.6.18
• 172.68.83.35
• 10.234.2.1

Explanation:The designated private IP addresses are within the three IP address ranges:

• 10.0.0.0 – 10.255.255.255
• 172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255
• 192.168.0.0 – 192.168.255.255

84. Which two application layer protocols manage the exchange of messages between a client with a web browser and a remote web server? (Choose two.)

• HTTPS
• HTML
• DHCP
• HTTP
• DNS

Explanation: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) and HTTP Secure (HTTPS) are two application layer protocols that manage the content requests from clients and the responses from the web server. HTML (Hypertext Mark-up Language) is the encoding language that describes the content and display features of a web page. DNS is for domain name to IP address resolution. DHCP manages and provides dynamic IP configurations to clients.

85. Match the port number to the email protocol.

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q85

86. Which protocol is used by a server that needs to send an email message to another server in order to support successful delivery of the message?

• SMTP
• DNS
• POP3
• IMAP4

87. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)

• It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
• It provides segmentation at Layer 2.
• A router connects multiple IP networks.
• It determines the best path to send packets.
• It builds a routing table based on ARP requests.

Explanation: Routers connect multiple networks, determine the best path to send packets, and forward packets based on a destination IP address.

88. Which statement describes a major characteristic of a local area network?

• A LAN is under one administrative control.
• A LAN is implemented in a corporation to connect all of its offices.
• A LAN connects remote users to the main corporate office.
• A LAN can contain up to 100 hosts.

89. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator for a small advertising company has chosen to use the 192.168.5.96/27 network for internal LAN addressing. As shown in the exhibit, a static IP address is assigned to the company web server. However, the web server cannot access the Internet. The administrator verifies that local workstations with IP addresses that are assigned by a DHCP server can access the Internet, and the web server is able to ping local workstations. Which component is incorrectly configured?

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q89

• subnet mask
• DNS address
• host IP address
• default gateway address

90. A law firm uses DHCPv4 to dynamically assign IPv4 addresses for staff workstations. The DHCP policy specifies that the lease period is 7 days. A staff member returns to the office after 2 weeks of vacation. When the employee turns on the workstation, which DHCPv4 message is sent by the workstation to obtain a valid IPv4 address?

• DHCPACK broadcast message
• DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message
• DHCPOFFER unicast message
• DHCPREQUEST unicast message

91. Match the command with the device mode at which the command is entered. (Not all options are used.)

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q91

Explanation: The enable command is entered in R1> mode. The login command is entered in R1(config-line)# mode. The copy running-config startup-config command is entered in R1# mode. The ip address 192.168.4.4 255.255.255.0 command is entered in R1(config-if)# mode. The service password-encryption command is entered in global configuration mode.

92. Which three layers of the OSI model make up the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

• presentation
• transport
• application
• network
• session
• data link

Explanation: The TCP/IP model consists of four layers: application, transport, internet, and network access. The OSI model consists of seven layers: application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, and physical. The top three layers of the OSI model: application, presentation, and session map to the application layer of the TCP/IP model.

93. What are two characteristics of 802.11 wireless networks? (Choose two.)

• Stations can transmit at any time.
• They use CSMA/CA technology.
• They are collision-free networks.
• They use CSMA/CD technology.
• Collisions can exist in the networks.

94. Which function is supplied by the access layer in a three-layer network design?

• application of policies
• backbone connectivity
• routing
• network access
• high-speed connectivity

Explanation: The main purpose of devices in the access layer is to supply network access to end users. Distribution layer devices provide services such as routing and policy functions. The core layer provides high-speed backbone connectivity.

95. When a LAN is connected to the internet using a wireless router, how do devices on the LAN communicate on the internet using NAT?

• Each LAN must select a single client device from the wireless router settings that can communicate to the internet via NAT.
• Only a small group of high priority client devices can be chosen by the wireless router to communicate to the internet using NAT.
• Each device must wait to receive a token from the wireless router in order to communicate to the internet via NAT.
• All devices must share the single public IPv4 address assigned to the wireless router in order to communicate to the internet via NAT.

96. In what situation would a Layer 2 switch have an IP address configured?

• when the Layer 2 switch is the default gateway of user traffic
• when the Layer 2 switch is using a routed port
• when the Layer 2 switch needs to forward user traffic to another device
• when the Layer 2 switch needs to be remotely managed

Explanation: Layer 2 switches can be configured with an IP address so that they can be remotely managed by an administrator. Layer 3 switches can use an IP address on routed ports. Layer 2 switches do not need a configured IP address to forward user traffic or act as a default gateway.

97. When would the Cisco IOS image held in ROM be used to boot the router?

• when the full IOS cannot be found
• during a normal boot process
• when the running configuration directs the router to do this
• during a file transfer operation

98. A technician has been asked to troubleshoot a simple network problem that seems to be caused by software. Which troubleshooting approach should be used?

• divide and conquer
• bottom-up
• top-down
• substitution

99. A router with a valid operating system contains a configuration file stored in NVRAM. The configuration file has an enable secret password but no console password. When the router boots up, which mode will display?

• user EXEC mode
• privileged EXEC mode
• setup mode
• global configuration mode

Explanation: If a Cisco IOS device has a valid IOS and a valid configuration file, it will boot into user EXEC mode. A password will be required to enter privileged EXEC mode.

100. Which three features represent benefits of virtualization? (Choose three.)

• fewer security requirements
• less power consumption
• improved disaster recovery
• less equipment
• less device monitoring
• less employee technical training

101. What is a difference between the functions of Cloud computing and virtualization?

• Cloud computing utilizes data center technology whereas virtualization is not used in data centers.
• Cloud computing provides services on web-based access whereas virtualization provides services on data access through virtualized
• Internet connections.
• Cloud computing separates the application from the hardware whereas virtualization separates the OS from the underlying hardware.
• Cloud computing requires hypervisor technology whereas virtualization is a fault tolerance technology.

Explanation: Cloud computing separates the application from the hardware. Virtualization separates the OS from the underlying hardware. Virtualization is a typical component within cloud computing. Virtualization is also widely used in data centers. Although the implementation of virtualization facilitates an easy server fault tolerance setup, it is not a fault tolerance technology by design. The Internet connection from a data center or service provider needs redundant physical WAN connections to ISPs.​​

102. Which two types of devices provide dynamic IPv4 addressing for internal hosts on a local network? (Choose two.)

• ISP DHCP server
• PC-based DHCP client
• wireless router
• PC-based DHCP server
• ISP router

103. A technician uses an application to capture packets on the network. One such capture reveals the password that is used by a person in the classroom to initiate a Telnet session with a school network device. What recommendation could the technician make to the person who is using Telnet?

• If possible, enable the network device to use SSH instead of Telnet.
• If possible, configure the business firewall to filter port 23.
• If possible, encrypt the Telnet password on the classroom computer.
• If possible, use a VPN tunnel from the classroom computer to the network device.

104. What is a benefit of using cloud computing in networking?

• Network capabilities are extended without requiring investment in new infrastructure, personnel, or software.
• End users have the freedom to use personal tools to access information and communicate across a business network.
• Home networking uses existing electrical wiring to connect devices to the network wherever there is an electrical outlet, saving the cost of installing data cables.
• Technology is integrated into every-day appliances allowing them to interconnect with other devices, making them more ‘smart’ or automated.

Explanation: Cloud computing extends IT’s capabilities without requiring investment in new infrastructure, training new personnel, or licensing new software. These services are available on-demand and delivered economically to any device anywhere in the world without compromising security or function. BYOD is about end users having the freedom to use personal tools to access information and communicate across a business or campus network. Smart home technology is integrated into every-day appliances allowing them to interconnect with other devices, making them more ‘smart’ or automated. Powerline networking is a trend for home networking that uses existing electrical wiring to connect devices to the network wherever there is an electrical outlet, saving the cost of installing data cables.

105. A technician is tasked with connecting a printer directly to the network and making it accessible to all staff in the general vicinity. What type of network cable is most likely used to connect the printer?

• RJ-11
• fiber-optic
• coaxial
• twisted-pair

106. What benefit does DHCP provide to a network?

• DHCP allows users to refer to locations by a name rather than an IP address.
• Hosts always have the same IP address and are therefore always reachable.
• Hosts can connect to the network and get an IP address without manual configuration.
• Duplicate addresses cannot occur on a network that issues dynamic addresses using DHCP and has static assignments.

107. What is the first step that a switch performs during the bootup sequence?

• Low-level CPU initialization begins.
• POST is initiated.
• The default IOS image is loaded.
• The boot loader is loaded.

108. A network engineer working at a community building that provides free WiFi is holding an IT conference tomorrow evening. A previous conference with over 100 attendees just ended less than 24 hours ago and the network engineer is concerned about the availability of dynamic addressing. How will the network engineer ensure that there are enough IP addresses for the attendees arriving at the IT conference tomorrow?

• The network engineer will create a new pool of IP addresses and provide a new network subnet and router configuration for the conference.
• The network engineer will manually release each lease created by the conference attendees yesterday and statically assign the incoming devices at the conference.
• The network engineer will disconnect all devices using an IP address from the DHCP server in preparation for the conference.
• The network engineer will verify that the DHCP leasing time is set for a couple of hours.

109. How are port numbers used in the TCP/IP encapsulation process?

• Source port numbers and destination port numbers are not necessary when UDP is the transport layer protocol being used for the communication.
• Destination port numbers are assigned automatically and cannot be changed.
• If multiple conversations occur that are using the same service, the source port number is used to track the separate conversations.
• Source port and destination port numbers are randomly generated.

Explanation: Both UDP and TCP use port numbers to provide a unique identifier for each conversation. Source port numbers are randomly generated and are used to track different conversations. Destination port numbers identify specific services by using either a default port number for the service or a port number that is assigned manually by a system administrator.

110. A student is sending files from a phone to a computer across a network. Which layer of the TCP/IP model is responsible for reassembling these messages as they are received on the computer?

• application
• transport
• Internet
• network access

111. Which logical binary operation is used by a network device to determine the network portion of an IPv4 address with a specified subnet mask?

• AND
• OR
• EQUAL
• NOT

112. A router receives an incoming packet and cannot determine where to forward it. What will the router do?

• save it until a usable path is installed
• send it back to the source host
• drop it
• broadcast it to directly attached networks

113. Refer to the exhibit. A TCP segment was sent by PC1 to the web server via port 80. Because of an unexpected network failure, the data was forwarded by R1 but was not received by R2. Which statement is correct about this scenario?

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q113

• The timer on R1 will expire and R1 will resend the segment to R2.​
• R1 will request that PC1 resend the segment.
• The web server will not acknowledge this segment. The PC1 timer will expire and PC1 will resend the segment.​
• R1 forwarded the data to R2 but R2 did not receive it. R2 will send a request to R1 to resend the segment.

114. What data representation is used when a computer or network device is processing data?

• binary
• readable
• text
• inferred

115. What command will prevent all unencrypted passwords from displaying in plain text in a configuration file?

• (config)# enable password secret
• (config)# enable secret Encrypted_Password
• (config-line)# password secret
• (config)# enable secret Secret_Password
• (config)# service password-encryption

Explanation: To prevent all configured passwords from appearing in plain text in configuration files, an administrator can execute the service password-encryption command. This command encrypts all configured passwords in the configuration file.

116. Which statement describes the relationship of a physical network and logical IPv4 addressed networks?

• All devices connected to a physical network need to belong to the same IPv4 logical network.
• A physical network can connect multiple devices of different IPv4 logical networks.
• End devices on different IPv4 logical networks can communicate with each other if they all connect to the same switch.
• A local physical network supports one IPv4 logical network.

117. A DHCP configured PC boots up. What is the order of the messages that are sent and received by this PC in order to obtain an appropriate IP address?

• DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPREQUEST, DHCPOFFER, DHCPACK​
• DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPOFFER, DHCPREQUEST, DHCPACK​
• DHCPOFFER, DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPREQUEST, DHCPACK​
• DHCPREQUEST, DHCPOFFER, DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPACK​